His ability to correctly interpret dreams which foretold the future (in Genesis 40-41) suggests the answer is "yes." But the fact that, unlike the patriarchs, God is never once recorded as having spoken to Joseph (in Gen 37-50) suggests the answer is "no." What is the normal view, and what is the correct view?
Asked by globewalldesk
(111 rep)
Mar 23, 2022, 04:05 AM
Last activity: Mar 24, 2022, 06:12 PM
Last activity: Mar 24, 2022, 06:12 PM