Is Ignatius' claim that Christians didn't keep the Sabbath correctly translated?

According to this pro-Sabbatarian source , Ignatius' statement, normally translated thus, is incorrect (emphasis mine): > If then those who had walked in ancient practices attained unto newness of hope, **no longer > observing sabbaths but fashioning their lives > after the Lord's day**, on which our life also > arose through Him and through His death > which some men deny -- a mystery whereby > we attained unto belief, and for this cause we > endure patiently, that we may be found disciples of Jesus Christ our only teacher.​ This translation contrasts observing Sabbaths with focusing on the Lord's Day. However, the Sabbatarian source linked to above says that "day" is not in the original (I take it that the translation above must believe it's implied), and that "those who had walked in ancient practices" were the Old Testament prophets. Since the Old Testament prophets *did*, in fact, keep the Sabbath, he says the translation above is incorrect and that the following translation is better (emphasis mine): > If then those who had walked in ancient practices attained unto newness of hope, **no longer > {Judaically} keeping sabbaths but according to the > Lord's way of life**...​ This would suggest that it isn't a contrast between the Sabbath and the Lord's Day but rather a contrast between observing the Sabbath Judaically (perhaps legalistically?) and observing the Sabbath according to the Lord's way. Which translation is better? Is it accurate that "those who had walked in ancient practices" are the Old Testament prophets (the assumption on which the second translation is based), or are they perhaps the first-century Christians/apostles observing the Lord's Day (which would favor the first translation)?