According to soul sleep advocates, did the Apostle Paul ever abandon his Pharisaic beliefs about the afterlife after becoming a Christian?
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Paul was a Pharisee:
> 6 Now **when Paul** perceived that one part were Sadducees and the other Pharisees, he cried out in the council, “**Brothers, I am a Pharisee, a son of Pharisees**. It is with respect to the hope and the resurrection of the dead that I am on trial.” 7 And when he had said this, a dissension arose between the Pharisees and the Sadducees, and the assembly was divided. 8 **For the Sadducees say that there is no resurrection, nor angel, nor spirit, but the Pharisees acknowledge them all**. 9 Then a great clamor arose, and some of the scribes of the Pharisees' party stood up and contended sharply, “We find nothing wrong in this man. What if a spirit or an angel spoke to him?” 10 And when the dissension became violent, the tribune, afraid that Paul would be torn to pieces by them, commanded the soldiers to go down and take him away from among them by force and bring him into the barracks.
> [Acts 23:6-10 ESV]
And as a Pharisee, he must have believed in [Sheol](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sheol) , [Abraham's bosom](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bosom_of_Abraham) (a compartment within Sheol) and the post-mortal consciousness of the spirits of the dead. This is confirmed by the [Parable of Lazarus & the rich man](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rich_man_and_Lazarus) (Luke 16:19-31), which Jesus likely based on traditional Pharisaic afterlife beliefs.
For example, the Wikipedia article on the parable [says](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rich_man_and_Lazarus#Lightfoot:_a_parable_against_the_Pharisees) :
> **Lightfoot: a parable against the Pharisees**
>
> John Lightfoot (1602–1675) treated the parable as a parody of Pharisee
> belief concerning the Bosom of Abraham, and from the connection of
> Abraham saying the rich man's family would not believe even if the
> parable Lazarus was raised, to the priests' failure to believe in the
> resurrection of Christ:
>
> > Any one may see, how Christ points at the infidelity of the Jews, even after that himself shall have risen again. From whence it is easy
> to judge what was the design and intention of this parable. (From the
> Talmud and Hebraica, Volume 3)
>
> E. W. Bullinger in the Companion Bible cited Lightfoot's comment,
> and expanded it to include coincidence to lack of belief in the
> resurrection of the historical Lazarus (John 12:10). Bullinger
> considered that Luke did not identify the passage as a "parable"
> because it contains a parody of the view of the afterlife:
>
> > **It is not called a parable because it cites a notable example of the Pharisee's tradition which had been brought from Babylon**.
**Question**: According to Soul Sleep advocates, if Paul, being a Pharisee, held Pharisaic beliefs about the afterlife, does that mean that he changed his mind about the state of the dead after his conversion? Did Paul ever embrace [Christian mortalism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christian_mortalism) ?
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Related BHSE questions:
- [When Paul said that he would like to be "at home with the Lord" (2 Corinthians 5:8), was he referring to Abraham's bosom?](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/73501/38524)
- [Did the Apostle Paul, as a Pharisee, believe in disembodied spirits? Acts 23:6-10](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/74130/38524)
Asked by user50422
Feb 2, 2022, 08:42 AM
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