How do believers in the tripartite nature of man (body, soul and spirit) reconcile Genesis 2:7, 1 Corinthians 15:44-45 and Matthew 10:28?

Essentially I'd like to know what *trichotomists* (i.e. believers in a tripartite nature of man, consisting of body, soul and spirit) have to say about a question I recently asked on Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange, namely, [A living soul cannot exist without a body (Gen 2:7; 1 Cor 15:44-45) but killing the body doesn't kill the soul (Matt 10:28). Is this a contradiction?](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/73790/38524) The answers so far all seem to reason from a 'dichotomy of man' standpoint, in which man is seen as the combination of two basic components: body and breath of life (some see the breath of life as the 'spirit' and the union of body and spirit as the 'soul', others use the words 'soul' and 'spirit' interchangeably). How would trichotomists define the terms and solve the apparent paradox presented in the aformentioned question? I'm copying and pasting the body of the BHSE question below: > #### The Passages > > Genesis 2:7 (KJV): > > 7 And the Lord God **formed man of the dust of the ground**, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; **and man became a > living soul**. > > 1 Corinthians 15:44-45 (KJV): > > 44 It is sown a **natural body**; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a **natural body**, and there is a spiritual body. 45 And so > it is written, **The first man Adam was made a living soul**; the last > Adam was made a quickening spirit. > > Matthew 10:28 (KJV): > > 28 And **fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul**: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and > body in hell. > > #### The Logical Contradiction > > **P1**: a living soul is a combination of physical body and breath of life (from Gen 2:7 and 1 Cor 15:44-45) > > **P2**: a human is a living soul (from Gen 2:7) > > **P3**: if human A kills/destroys the body of human B, the soul of human B is **NOT** killed/destroyed, i.e., the soul remains (from > Matthew 10:28) > > **P4**: if human A kills/destroys the body of human B, human B no longer has a body (from common sense) > > **C1**: if human A kills/destroys the body of human B, human B is no longer a **living soul** (from P4, P2, P1) > > **Contradiction/Paradox**: if human A kills/destroys the body of human B, human B still has a soul (from P3) **BUT** no longer is a living > soul (from C1) > > #### In other words ... > > If I kill someone (hypothetically, God forbid) by destroying their > physical body, that person would no longer have a body, so by > definition they would stop being a living soul (Genesis 2:7, 1 Cor > 15:44-45), but **paradoxically** their soul would remain > "unkilled"/undestroyed (Matthew 10:28). They would cease to be a > living soul yet their soul would be untouched (??). > > #### Question > > How can we make sense of this? Is this a real paradox/contradiction?