Was Chrysostom mistaken about the cessation of charismatic gifts in the late 4th century?

John Chrysostom (AD 347-407), while commenting on 2 Thessalonians 2:7, writes about how some in his day thought the prevalence of the full range of charismatic gifts functioned to restrain the coming of the man of lawlessness. He writes: > Some indeed say, the grace of the Spirit, but others the Roman empire, > to whom I most of all accede. Wherefore? Because if he meant to say > the Spirit, he would not have spoken obscurely, but plainly, that even > now the grace of the Spirit, that is the gifts, withhold him. And > otherwise he ought now to have come, if he was about to come when the > gifts ceased; for they have long since ceased. But because he said > this of the Roman empire, he naturally glanced at it, and speaks > covertly and darkly. For he did not wish to bring upon himself > superfluous enmities, and useless dangers. (Homily 4 on Second > Thessalonians) In examining the patristic record , his observation seems to be in error at least for the first three centuries. However, is it possible that a full range distribution of charismatic gifts ceased sometime in the late fourth century? If so, what are the different theories accounting for such a decline?