Do Biblical Unitarians view John 1:14 and Philippians 2:5-8 as two complementary descriptions of the same event?
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John 1:14 (YLT):
> 14 And the **Word became flesh, and did tabernacle among us**, and we beheld his glory, glory as of an **only begotten of a father**, full of grace and truth.
Philippians 2:5-8 (YLT):
> 5 For, let this mind be in you that [is] also in **Christ Jesus**,
>
> 6 who, **being in the form of God**, thought [it] not robbery to be **equal to God**,
>
> 7 but did empty himself, **the form of a servant having taken**, in the
> **likeness of men having been made**,
>
> 8 and in fashion having been **found as a man**, he humbled himself,
> having become obedient unto death -- death even of a cross,
I find some notable parallels between these two accounts:
- Both appear to be talking about Jesus (*"only begotten of a father"*, *"Christ Jesus"*)
- Both appear to be describing a transition from a prior state to a next state (*"the Word became flesh"*, from *"form of God"*/*"equal to God"* to *"form of a servant"*/*"found as a man"*)
- Both mention the fact that this person lived among humans (*"did tabernacle among us"*, *"found as a man"*)
Do Biblical Unitarians agree that John 1:14 and Philippians 2:5-8 are describing the same event?
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Related BH.SE question: [Are John 1:14 and Philippians 2:5-8 describing the same event?](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/57139/38524)
Asked by user50422
Oct 18, 2021, 03:53 AM
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