How do deniers of Jesus' preincarnate existence interpret 2 Corinthians 8:9?

2 Corinthians 8:9 (ESV): > 9 For you know the grace of **our Lord Jesus Christ, that though he was rich, yet for your sake he became poor**, so that you by his poverty might become rich. A related question [When was Jesus rich? 2 Corinthian 8:9](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/60837/when-was-jesus-rich-2-corinthian-89) on Hermeneutics.SE shows that the verse is interpreted by many as indicative of Jesus' preincarnate existence, because --the argument goes-- Jesus was never rich in his mortal life, so the only reasonable option left is that he had to be rich before his incarnation. Of course, deniers of Jesus' preincarnate existence do not share this view. Therefore, I'd be very interested to know their thoughts on this passage. By the way, answerers to this question are welcome to post an answer to the question on the hermeneutics site too.