How do believers in Jesus' deity explain that Jesus is never claimed to be God/divine in the Old Roman Creed and the Didache?

In an [answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/83086/50422) to a [previous question](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/82708/50422) of mine, a user argued against the historicity of the belief in the divinity of Jesus in the early stages of Christianity, by pointing out the fact that Jesus is never claimed to be God in two very important early documents that record what early Christians believed at the time, namely, the [Old Roman Creed](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_Roman_Symbol) and the [Didache](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Didache) . Below an extract from the answer: ___________________ > [...] Hence, the concepts of pre-existence and the incarnation were unknown to the early Christians. > > What is the proof? Where is any mention of the divinity of Christ noticeably absent? Let's read: |The Div. Trinity, p. 150| |:-------| |"… even **the Didache**, or “Teaching of the Twelve Apostles,” the oldest literary monument of Christian antiquity outside of the New Testament canon … contains no formal profession of faith in the Divinity of Jesus Christ and the Atonement."
(*The Divine Trinity. A Dogmatic Treatise* by Pohle, Joseph, Rt. Rev. Msgr., PH.D., D.D., edited by Arthur Preuss, B. Herder Book Co., © 1911.)| > Where is any mention of the divinity of Christ noticeably absent? According to Pohle, "the Didache". What is the Didache? According to Pohle, "the oldest literary monument of Christian antiquity outside of the New Testament canon". Many scholars hold that it was written sometime during the First Century. > > Hence, even passages like, "I am My Father are one," (John 10:30) would not have been interpreted at the time as referring to "the Divinity of Jesus Christ".  > > What is the proof that the concept of preëxistence was also unknown to the early Christians? Where is any mention of the preëxistent Christ noticeably absent? Let's read: |The Philo. of the Ch. Fathers, p. 190| |:-------| |"In contradistinction to these two types of works, in which there is either a specific mention of a preëxistent Christ or an allusion to it, there is **the Old Roman** or the so-called Apostles’ Creed (ca. 100), which follows the language of Matthew and Luke and makes no mention of the preëxistent Christ."
(*The Philosophy of the Church Fathers,* Wolfson, Harry Austryn. Volume 1: Faith, Trinity, Incarnation. 2nd rev. ed. Cambridge, Massachusetts: Harvard University Press, 1964.)| > > Where is any mention of the preëxistent Christ noticeably absent? According to Wolfson, "the Old Roman or the so-called Apostles' Creed". When was this written? According to Wolfson, "ca. 100". This was also around the time when the last of the Apostles passed away. ____________________ The same argument is eloquently restated by one of the commenters (emphasis mine): > [...] The Old Roman Creed and Didache are the 2 very early 'dogs that didn't bark'. If people thought Jesus was God, that would be *really important* and they would say so. **Not saying it is tantamount to denying it in those contexts**. Same with John 20:31. If John is really intending to claim Jesus is God with Thomas' exclamation, why doesn't he say so in his takeaway summary? You think that would be important! So not saying it is contextual evidence that 20:28 isn't meant to be a claim that Jesus is God. Add in John 17:3 and John 20:17 ____________ **Question**: How do Trinitarians explain that Jesus is never claimed to be God in the Old Roman Creed and the Didache? Is the absence of evidence truly evidence of absence in this case?