If Jesus was resurrected as a man how can Paul say his apostleship was not through a man but it was through Jesus at Galatians 1:1?

Catholics, Protestants, and Eastern Orthodox Christians agree that Jesus was both God and man as described in the [Chalcedon Definition](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chalcedonian_Definition) in 451. However at Galatians 1:1 Paul says that the source of his apostleship was not from or through men or "a man" ("any human being", Catholic NJB) > Gal 1:1: Paul, **an apostle** sent not from men, **nor by a man**, **but by Jesus Christ**, and God the Father, who raised him [a man?] from the dead), (NIV ) Paul says that **his assignment as an apostle** was not from (Greek από) or through (δια) a man. But it was through Jesus. See the excursus for how the word Άνθρωπος is used in scripture. Those who adhere to Chalcedon also teach that a human body was raised and Paul says God the Father raised Jesus. If Jesus was resurrected as a man how can Paul say his apostleship was not through a man but it was through Jesus at Galatians 1:1? ---- Excursus: Does Άνθρωπος mean a man or human nature? --- άνθρωπος does not mean "*human*" in contrast to ανήρ or αρσην with the meaning "*man*." At **Eph 5:31** and **1 Co 7:1** it obviously and contextually means "*a male person, man*". (**BDAG**) In contrast, when preceded by κατά and in the accusative case as in Gal 1:11, it refers to "status" and is rendered "human." (Cp. 1 Co 9:8, Ro 3:15, Ga 3:15). The contrast between Ga 1:1 and 1:11 shows how Paul represents άνθρωπος as "human." This idiom is not found at Ga 1:1. When contrasted with God it is seen as inferior to God and has a "focus on limitations and weakness, a human being." This definition applies to all human beings when compared to God. This is the case at Galatians 1:1.