Biblical basis for claiming Eve was a virgin prior to the Fall

In Against Heresies (book 3, chapter 22) Irenaeus attempts to draw a comparison between Eve and Mary similar to the comparison Paul draws between Adam and Christ. He says that Mary obeyed in a state of virginity > But Eve was disobedient; for she did not obey when as yet she was a > virgin. And that Eve, having been disobedient, was made the cause of death to the entire human race and Mary, obeying in the same state of virginity, became the cause of salvation for the entire human race. Hosts of questions come to mind but this specific question is: Is there biblical ground to claim that *Genesis 2:25 "And the man and his wife were both naked and were not ashamed."* means that they had not yet had moral and lawful intercourse as man and wife (as Irenaeus asserts) even though the command to have intercourse came before the fall?