In what manner does the Father draw men to Jesus Christ? John 6:44
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This question is for Evangelicals who do not hold a Calvinist view
Jesus Christ states that the Father alone draws men to Himself.
> “No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him”
John 6:44
1. What did Jesus mean by this statement?
1. How is this statement to be understood in the broader context of
Scripture such that God remains Sovereign, drawing certain men to
Jesus Christ but men still have free will to choose, up until the
point of being drawn by the Father to Jesus Christ or thereafter?
1. The response should be able to address/explain Acts 13 why the Jews
were not drawn but the Gentiles were and Acts 16 with Lydia who went
from hearing to paying close attention, therefore drawn. Or other NT
examples.
Jesus does add a qualifier
> “It is written in the prophets, ‘And they shall all be taught by God.’ *Therefore everyone who has heard and learned from the Father comes to Me*.”
John 6:45
1. How can one hear and learn from the Father if first they have not
been drawn to Jesus Christ yet but clearly still able to hear and
learn from the Father prior to been drawn to believe in Jesus
Christ?
1. What is the catalyst that allows them to hear and learn that they
might be drawn?
Asked by Autodidact
(1141 rep)
Jan 2, 2020, 01:54 PM
Last activity: Jan 7, 2020, 02:04 PM
Last activity: Jan 7, 2020, 02:04 PM