Why and when did allegorical interpretations of Scripture lose their appeal?

[Gregory of Nyssa's](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gregory_of_Nyssa) book [The Life of Moses](http://books.google.com/books/about/The_life_of_Moses.html?id=wAJ6fwFAligC) is, if nothing else, a very interesting read. He goes through Moses' account in Exodus and ascribes spiritual meanings to every little detail, although it is doubtful that any of them would pass muster in a pulpit today. Augustine would also do allegorical interpretations, such as the following: >“Thus as great and brilliant a scholar as Augustine offers the following interpretation of the parable of the Good Samaritan: > >A certain man went down from Jerusalem to Jericho = Adam > >Jerusalem = the heavenly city of peace from which Adam fell > >Jericho = the moon, and thereby signifies Adam’s mortality > >Thieves = the devil and his angels > >Stripped him = namely of his immortality > >Beat him = by persuading him to sin > >And left him half-dead = as a man he lives, but he died spiritually, therefore he is half-dead > >The priest and the Levite = the priesthood and ministry of the Old Testament > >The Samaritan = is said to mean ‘Guardian,’ and therefore means Christ himself > >Bound his wounds = means binding therestraint of sin > >Oil = comfort of Good hope > >Wine = exhortation to work with a fervent spirit > >Beast = the flesh of Christ’s incarnation > >Inn = the church > >The morrow = after the Resurrection > >Two-pence = promise of this life and the life to come > >Innkeeper = Paul The above interpretation, however, is a requote from Gordon Fee and Douglas Stuart's classic and authoritative book [*How to Read the Bible for all its Worth*](https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/24193776-how-to-read-the-bible-for-all-its-worth) , as an example of how modern interpretation is *NOT* to be done. They are right, of course, because allegory really isn't testable in the end. My question is this - how did the vast majority of modern Christians come to realize that allegory was not the best hermeneutical principle for reading Scripture? Historically, when did the shift occur, what triggered it, and how did Chalcedonian Christianity come to realize this was not the way to read the Bible? Along these lines, are there any major strains of Christianity that would accept this? (My guess would be that if anyone still does this, it would be the Eastern Orthodox, but I'd need confirmation)