Calvinism: limited atonement and the negative inference fallacy
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All Biblical proof-texts that Calvinists use to provide evidence for the doctrine of limited atonement suffer from an objective logical fallacy informally known as the 'negative inference fallacy.' A simple example of such a fallacious argument is:
John loves his friends.
Therefore, John does not love his enemies.
Calvinists use limited atonement proof-text verses (John 10:11, Ephesians 5:25, Acts 20:28) to make the following argument:
The Bible states that Jesus died for believers (the sheep, the church, the elect, etc.)
Therefore, Jesus did not die for unbelievers (the goats, the reprobate, etc.)
But this argument has the exact same logical form as the objectively fallacious argument that I provided as an example. Furthermore, the Bible contains a plethora of verses stating plainly that Jesus died for all men, casting further doubt on the Calvinist position.
My question:
How do Calvinists respond to the criticism that many proof-texts they use to support the doctrine of limited atonement suffer from a basic logical fallacy?
Edited to add quotes from Calvinists:
[Matt Slick, carm.org](https://carm.org/what-is-limited-atonement)
>Jesus said in John 10:15 that he laid his life down for the sheep. Furthermore in John 10:26 Jesus said that people did not believe because they are not his sheep. The argument goes that if Jesus lays his life down for the sheep and there are people who were not his sheep, then he did not lay his life down for those who are not his sheep.
[R.C. Sproul or someone from his website, ligonier.org](https://www.ligonier.org/learn/devotionals/particular-atonement-2/)
>God did not send His Son to make it possible or even probable that some would be saved. Instead, His plan guaranteed the salvation of His elect. Christ died for the sins of His people alone. He gave His life only for His sheep (John 10:11).
[James White, aomin.org](http://vintage.aomin.org/Was%20Anyone%20Saved.html)
>There are a number of Scriptures that teach us that the scope of Christ's death was limited to the elect. Here are a few of them:
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>Just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give his life as a ransom for many (Matthew 20:28).
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>The "many" for whom Christ died are the elect of God, just as Isaiah had said long before,
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>By his knowledge my righteous servant will justify many, and he will bear their iniquities. (Isaiah 53:11)
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>The Lord Jesus made it clear that His death was for His people when He spoke of the Shepherd and the sheep:
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>I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd lays down his life for the sheep....just as the Father knows me and I know the Father---and I lay down my life for the sheep (John 10:11, 15).
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>The good Shepherd lays down His life in behalf of the sheep. Are all men the sheep of Christ? Certainly not, for most men do not know Christ, and Christ says that His sheep know Him (John 10:14). Further, Jesus specifically told the Jews who did not believe in Him, "but you do not believe because you are not my sheep" (John 10:26). Note that in contrast with the idea that we believe and therefore make ourselves Christ's sheep, Jesus says that they do not believe because they are not His sheep! Whether one is of Christ's sheep is the Father's decision (John 6:37, 8:47), not the sheep's!
Asked by pr871
(397 rep)
Mar 7, 2018, 06:27 PM
Last activity: Sep 19, 2019, 05:17 PM
Last activity: Sep 19, 2019, 05:17 PM