Is a word [letter] and [scripture] in 2 Peter 3:16 the same meaning?
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2 Peter 3:16
> He writes the same way in all **his letters**, speaking in
> them of these matters. **His letters** contain some things that are hard
> to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort, as they do
> the other **Scriptures**, to their own destruction.
I mean, when Peter said "*his letters*" ---> Did Peter mean [his Scriptures] ?
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As I'm from a non-English speaking country, this is quite confusing for me. Because in our language words, a Scripture is a Bible - while a letter is not a Bible. And of course, in this modern time - no one will say "I'm writing a Bible" :).
Illustration :
Suppose Peter is writing for his fellow Christians.
Someone phone him *"Hi Peter, what are you doing ?"*.
Peter answer "I'm writing a scripture".
What will be in the caller's mind ?
A. Peter is writing a Bible
B. Peter is writing a letter (not a Bible)
Thank you.
Suppose Peter is writing for his fellow Christians.
Someone phone him *"Hi Peter, what are you doing ?"*.
Peter answer "I'm writing a scripture".
What will be in the caller's mind ?
A. Peter is writing a Bible
B. Peter is writing a letter (not a Bible)
Thank you.
Asked by karma
(2436 rep)
Jun 18, 2017, 01:53 PM
Last activity: Jun 18, 2017, 10:45 PM
Last activity: Jun 18, 2017, 10:45 PM