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Why did Theodore of Mopsuestia interpret John 20:28 as an exclamation?

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John 20:28 says (KJV)... >And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. Greek... >ἀπεκρίθη Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ Ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου. According to Meyer's NT Commentary... >ὁ κύριός μου κ. ὁ θεός μου] is taken by Theodore of Mopsuestia (“quasi pro miraculo facto Deum collaudat,” ed. Fritzsche, p. 41) as an exclamation of astonishment directed to God. I know his writings were condemned several centuries after his death, but I can't find his reasoning for this particular interpretation. Why did Theodore of Mopsuestia believe1 John 20:28 was an exclamation? 1 In his commentary to St. John. This particular passage is from the Latin text quoted in the Second Council of Constantinople (Search for the words "My Lord and my God.") .
Asked by Cannabijoy (2510 rep)
May 23, 2017, 02:27 PM
Last activity: Jun 12, 2017, 11:30 AM