Why did Theodore of Mopsuestia interpret John 20:28 as an exclamation?
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John 20:28 says (KJV)...
>And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
Greek...
>ἀπεκρίθη Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ Ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου.
According to Meyer's NT Commentary...
>ὁ κύριός μου κ. ὁ θεός μου] is taken by Theodore of Mopsuestia (“quasi pro miraculo facto Deum collaudat,” ed. Fritzsche, p. 41) as an exclamation of astonishment directed to God.
I know his writings were condemned several centuries after his death, but I can't find his reasoning for this particular interpretation. Why did Theodore of Mopsuestia believe1 John 20:28 was an exclamation?
1 In his commentary to St. John. This particular passage is from the Latin text quoted in the Second Council of Constantinople (Search for the words "My Lord and my God.") .
Asked by Cannabijoy
(2510 rep)
May 23, 2017, 02:27 PM
Last activity: Jun 12, 2017, 11:30 AM
Last activity: Jun 12, 2017, 11:30 AM