How did Swedenborg interpret 1 John 2:2: "He is the propitiation for our sins"?

Many Christians believe that Jesus died to appease the anger of God. One reason for this is 1 John 2:2, which says: >And he is the **propitiation** for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world. > >καὶ αὐτὸς **ἱλασμός** ἐστιν περὶ τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν ἡμῶν, οὐ περὶ τῶν ἡμετέρων δὲ μόνον ἀλλὰ καὶ περὶ ὅλου τοῦ κόσμου. Propitiation basically means to appease the wrath of a god through an offering. How did Swedenborg translate ἱλασμός and interpret 1 John 2:2?