If Jesus' ministry was to the Jews, why did He go to Syria?

**Matthew 4:25** (HCSB) says, > Then the news about Him spread throughout Syria. So they brought to > Him all those who were afflicted, those suffering from various > diseases and intense pains, the demon-possessed, the epileptics, and > the paralytics. And He healed them. But in **Matthew 15:24** Jesus said, > “I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of > Israel.” If Jesus' ministry was to the Jews, why would he go into a Gentile nation? I am assuming that he actually entered Syria, because His fame spread throughout Syria – I could be wrong. Yet to enter Syria, he would need to go through Lebanon as well, taking him far afield. How do any Protestant Bible scholars explain the mention of Syria in this verse? Perhaps Jesus knew some Jews were there?