How is the Book of Enoch ascribing all sins of fallen angels to Azazel not Scriptural?

A member by the name Jas 3.1 in his list of false doctrines against the Book of Enoch in "Why is the Book of Enoch not regarded as canonical?" stated: "Ascribes all the sin of the fallen angels to one named Azazel - not scriptural" From a commentary on the Book of Enoch in a Wordpress blog article by the name Piper Michael, he mentioned that this doctrine with the name Azazel as scapegoat was mentioned in Leviticus chapter 16. So, I went to pull out the chapter from the BLB that mentioned about sacrificial offerings of two goats (Lev 16:7) in which " one lot for the LORD, and the other lot for the scapegoat." (Lev 16:8) Then from the same BDB I clicked on for the Masoretic text and here's what I found: > **16:8 וְנָתַן אַהֲרֹן עַל־שְׁנֵי הַשְּׂעִירִם גֹּורָלֹות גֹּורָל אֶחָד לַיהוָה וְגֹורָל אֶחָד לַעֲזָאזֵֽל׃** Reading from right to left as the way of Hebrew language, the last word (just before the colon looking sign) is **לַעֲזָאזֵֽל**, which reads la-`aza'zel. The prefix **לַ** is a preposition "for" and the "a" vowel is the definite article "the". Therefore the prefix "la" means "for the". The main word here is a masculine noun **זָאזֵֽל** `aza'zel *Strong's H5799 which according to Strong's Concordance means: > 1. entire removal, scapegoat > 2. refers to the goat used for sacrifice for the sins of the people So, **זָאזֵֽל** `aza'zel or Azazel as mentioned in the Book of Enoch for the fallen angel Azazel simply means a sacrificial scapegoat for the sins of the people. In the Book of Enoch, the fallen angel Azazel was a scapegoat for the sins of the rest of the fallen angels. Leviticus 16:10 also mentioned that the scapegoat "shall be presented alive before the LORD, to make an atonement with him, and to let him go for a scapegoat into the wilderness. After completing the sacrificial ritual as commanded by Elohim, Lev 16:21 then stated: > "And Aaron shall lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, > and confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and > all their transgressions in all their sins, putting them upon the head > of the goat, and shall send him away by the hand of a fit man into the > wilderness:" It seems to me that the doctrine of ascribing all the sin of the fallen angels to one named Azazel as mentioned in the Book of Enoch has a corresponding basis in the Bible. So, how is this particular doctrine in the Book of Enoch not scriptural?