Was Paul advocating killing a man because of sexual immorality?

1 Corinthians 5:5 (NIV) > **5** hand this man over to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, so that his spirit may be saved on the day of the Lord. Here we have Paul referring to a man that was sleeping with 'his father's wife'. It seems from the way the phrase reads that Paul would see this man's flesh destroyed, if not directly by the members of the Corinthian church then indirectly, through the agency of Satan. What is the meaning of the phrase 'destruction of the flesh'? If Paul is advocating killing him then what are the ramifications?