Why does St. Paul say that a husband is "divided" between his wife and God?

**According to Catholic theologians, why does St. Paul say that a husband is "divided" between pleasing his wife and pleasing God?** Can't a husband please God by pleasing his wife? Or is that what Paul meant? 1 Cor. 7:32 -33: > 32. But I would have you to be without solicitude. He that is without a wife, is solicitous for the things that belong to the Lord, how he may please God. > 33. But he that is with a wife, is solicitous for the things of the world, how he may please his wife: and he is divided.