What defense do Dispensationalists offer regarding frequent equating of Israel and the Church in Scripture?

Please correct me if I am wrong, but from my understanding, Dispensationalism suggests that there is a distinct and sharp contrast between Israel and the Church. It holds to the notion that God has a separate plan and purpose for each throughout redemptive history, even into the eschatological future. For example, the 70th week of Daniel is often understood in dispensationalist thought as the Great Tribulation, a period where God deals specifically with Israel, with the Church being raptured prior to this time. Now, my question is not regarding the application of the dispensationalist view of Israel vs. the Church but rather the defense of such a view. As I’ve studied the relationship between Israel and the Church, Scripture seems to continually point to something other than a distinct differentiation between the two and instead highlights their unity and cohesion. For instance, we see verses like **1 Peter 2:9-10**: > *“But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light.”* In this passage, Peter seems to be directly using the exact verbiage used throughout the Old Testament to describe the nation of Israel in **Exodus**, **Leviticus**, and **Deuteronomy**. Additionally, in **Galatians 3:28-29**, Paul states: > *“There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.”* Here, Paul emphasizes that believers in Christ—regardless of ethnic background—are Abraham’s seed and heirs of the promise, which is a foundational identity tied to Israel in the Old Testament. Another example is found in **Ephesians 2:14-16**, which reads: > *“For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; and that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby.”* And further in **Ephesians 3:6**, Paul elaborates on this unity, stating: > *“That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel.”* This passage seems to underscore the idea that Gentiles are now fellow heirs with Israel, sharing in the same body and the promises originally given to Israel. Additionally, in **Acts 15:9**, during the Jerusalem Council, the apostles and elders discuss the issue of whether Gentile believers must follow the Jewish law, particularly circumcision, to be saved. Peter, addressing the council, says: > *“And put no difference between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith.”* This statement is particularly significant because the Council ultimately concludes that Gentiles are not required to observe the Jewish law, recognizing that there is no longer any distinction between Jew and Gentile in Christ. Furthermore, the council affirms that even Jewish believers are no longer bound to the law for salvation. This moment seems to suggest a deep unity between Jewish and Gentile believers, challenging the idea of a permanent, God-ordained distinction between Israel and the Church. How do dispensationalists interpret such passages to maintain their framework of a distinct differentiation between Israel and the Church? Are there common principles or hermeneutical approaches they use to address these kinds of verses? Thank you for helping me understand this perspective better. All verses are from KJV. God bless!