Apparent contradiction between Isaiah 44 and Psalm 82

From this question , and the comments, I am under the impression that Isaiah 44:6-8 >6 Thus saith the Lord the King of Israel, and his redeemer the Lord of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God. > >7 And who, as I, shall call, and shall declare it, and set it in order for me, since I appointed the ancient people? and the things that are coming, and shall come, let them shew unto them. > >8 Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. **Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.** implies to many Christians that an omniscience God knows of no other gods because there are no other gods. >He is the only God ... He also says that He knows of no other God >there is only one God, period, He just said so Psalm 82 seems to indicate otherwise >1 God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; **he judgeth among the gods.** > >2 How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah. > >3 Defend the poor and fatherless: do justice to the afflicted and needy. > >4 Deliver the poor and needy: rid them out of the hand of the wicked. > >5 They know not, neither will they understand; they walk on in darkness: all the foundations of the earth are out of course. > >6 I have said, **Ye are gods;** and all of you are children of the most High. > >7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes. > >8 Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations. This Psalm is quoted/referenced later by Jesus in John 10:33-36 . Other scriptures that seem to indicate multiple gods is 1 Cor 8:5-6 How do non-LDS Christians (the other question was focused on Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints understanding of the Isaiah verse), interpret these scriptures together? Or am I misunderstanding other Christian's interpretation of Isaiah 44?