SN 12.35: why do both phrases have the same meaning?

SN 12.35 says: > “Not a valid question,” the Blessed One replied. “Bhikkhu, whether one > says, ‘What now is aging-and-death, and for whom is there this > aging-and-death?’ or whether one says, ‘Aging-and-death is one thing, > the one for whom there is this aging-and-death is another’—both these > assertions are identical in meaning; they differ only in the phrasing. Why are the following two statements identical in meaning: 1. What now is aging-and-death, and for whom is there this aging-and-death?’ 2. ‘Aging-and-death is one thing, the one for whom there is this aging-and-death is another’