Why does one suffer because of ignorance if ignorance is unintentional?
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It makes no sense that a person would knowingly choose to be ignorant of what causes them suffering, yet people suffer for "their" ignorance anyway.
How is a person supposed to "freely/willingly choose" insight/knowledge if that choice is dependent upon already having some insight/knowledge? Are the persons choices before choosing insight/knowledge completely at random? Do people not have any freedom or autonomy?
I think this may be another unanswerable question.
Asked by Angus
(544 rep)
Nov 5, 2018, 02:05 PM
Last activity: Nov 25, 2023, 01:17 PM
Last activity: Nov 25, 2023, 01:17 PM