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Who is "him" in "whoever opposes the Messenger after guidance has become clear to him" in Qur'an 4:115?

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> وَمَن يُشَاقِقِ ٱلرَّسُولَ مِن بَعْدِ مَا تَبَيَّنَ لَهُ ٱلْهُدَىٰ وَيَتَّبِعْ غَيْرَ سَبِيلِ ٱلْمُؤْمِنِينَ نُوَلِّهِ مَا تَوَلَّىٰ وَنُصْلِهِ جَهَنَّمَ وَسَآءَتْ مَصِيراً
> And **whoever opposes the Messenger after guidance has become clear to him** and follows other than the way of the believers - We will give him what he has taken and drive him into Hell, and evil it is as a destination.
> Qur'an 4:115 There seems to be two possible interpretations of "after guidance has become clear to him" here: 1. "after guidance has become clear to the Messenger" and 2. "after guidance has become clear to the person who opposes the Messenger". The first means after Allah has made the message clear to Muhammad, whereas the second means after the message has reached the person, and it is clear to that person. I'm not sure which is correct. **Question**: Who is "him" in "whoever opposes the Messenger after guidance has become clear to him" in Qur'an 4:115? The Arabic doesn't seem to make this clear; (his لَه "belonging to a man or boy who you have already talked about"). I didn't find the answer at altafsir.com .
Asked by Rebecca J. Stones (20998 rep)
Feb 10, 2018, 10:42 AM
Last activity: Feb 11, 2018, 09:34 PM