Was there an Islamically sanctioned reason for Aisha, the prophet's wife, to revolt against the election of Ali ibn Abu Talib for caliph by the Ummah?

Was her motive purely political, or was their an Islamically sanctioned reason? The moderators said this question was a duplicate and referred to a link that had 4 detailed answers. Most of the answers said Aisha's primary motivation was to bring the previous caliph's (Othman ibn Affan) murderers to justice. While I certainly agree that this justice should be pursued, I fail to see how this would justify organizing a revolt (fitna) against Ali. Ever since this revolt, the ummah have been in turmoil and never had a legitimate Islamic government. The entire history from this point to the present day all we see are tyrants who either inherited rule in a dynasty chain or by violent conquest. Neither of which are sanctioned by Islam. Again, was there an Islamically sanctioned reason for Aisha's fitna against Ali?