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Does the sacrament of marriage presume a desire for children?

2 votes
3 answers
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So I heard priests **literally** claiming: "A marriage entered with no desire to have children is invalid." Of course, we all know that in the ceremony, the couple is asked: "Are you prepared to accept children lovingly from God ..." Still, that's not **active** desire. And similarly, I heard that a mere **openness** to children is enough. So what actually is the necessary psychological state to marry according to the Catholic Church? I don't mean how it ideally **should** be, but the **bare minimum** for a valid marriage. Because one sure **can** get pregnant or father a child, while not **wanting** this to happen. Still, it would be strange if a consummated marriage **with** children that was in every other way valid could turn out to be invalid because one of the partners didn't want children. One could point to the existing children, and so at least we can assume they **gave into** unprotected intercourse (they knew what would likely happen!), and became a parent. Is this enough? Historically, this was perhaps not such a rare situation, e.g. on the part of the woman in marriages of high nobility. Some probably had mixed feelings about it, not an active, unequivocal desire – especially since childbirth was so dangerous. PS: at best, I'd like to hear from authoritative sources that explain this issue.
Asked by viuser (123 rep)
Jan 17, 2024, 10:15 PM
Last activity: Jan 19, 2024, 05:42 PM