Is Mary's grace of Immaculate Conception the same as that of "Holy" Mary?

Did Mary never sin throughout her life ("Holy Mary") because she received the grace of Immaculate Conception, or are there two different graces? The dogma of Immaculate Conception states (in [*Ineffabilis Deus*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ineffabilis_Deus#Content)) : > We declare, pronounce, and define that the doctrine which holds that > the most Blessed Virgin Mary, in the first instance of her conception, > by a singular grace and privilege granted by Almighty God, in view of > the merits of Jesus Christ, the Saviour of the human race, was > preserved free from all stain of original sin, is a doctrine revealed > by God and therefore to be believed firmly and constantly by all the > faithful. (See also another question .) Meanwhile, the Catholic Catechism states > 493 The Fathers of the Eastern tradition call the Mother of God "the > All-Holy" (*Panagia*), and celebrate her as "free from any stain of sin, > as though fashioned by the Holy Spirit and formed as a new creature". > By the grace of God Mary remained free of every personal sin her whole > life long. It is not clear to me whether the features are product of the same grace. The other example where the two conditions meet is Jesus Christ. I am not aware of the Church declaring another person as having received the grace of not ever sinning, or of immaculate conception. Perhaps both come together because they are the same? P.S.: In my opinion, this related question does not answer the question.