Was the music of the early church a capella?

I have often heard historical arguments like the following against the use of musical instruments: > Neither he [Paul] nor any other apostle, nor the Lord Jesus, nor any of the disciples for five hundred years, used instruments. This too, in the face of the fact that the Jews had used instruments in the days of their prosperity and that the Greeks and heathen nations all used them in their worship. They were dropped out with such emphasis that they were not taken up till the middle of the Dark Ages, and came in as part of the order of the Roman Catholic Church. It seems there cannot be doubt but that the use of instrumental music in connection with the worship of God, whether used as a part of the worship or as an attraction accompaniment, is unauthorized by God and violates the oft-repeated prohibition to add nothing to, take nothing from, the commandments of the Lord. It destroys the difference between the clean and the unclean, the holy and unholy, counts the blood of the Son of God unclean, and tramples under foot the authority of the Son of God. They have not been authorized by God or sanctified with the blood of his Son. > > — David Lipscomb, Queries and Answers by David Lipscomb, pp. 226-227, and Gospel Advocate, 1899, pp. 376-377. Taken from jasonsbibleblog.com . The argument is that the original Christians did not use musical instruments—even though the Jews and all other religions at the time did use them. Therefore, the argument goes, Christians should not use musical instruments in worship. Does the quote above accurately portray early church history? I am not asking for the validity of the conclusions, only for whether Lipscomb gets the history right.