According to reformed theology, are _all_ wealthy Christians required to give their wealth to the poor?

In Mark 10:17-31, we see Jesus talk to the rich young ruler, and tell him to sell his possessions and give it to the poor. According to reformed theologians, is this required of _all_ wealthy followers of Christ, or was this merely a test designed for this particular rich young ruler, to show that in his heart, he loved his wealth more than he loved God? For those arguing the case of "no, wealthy Christinas are not required to give all their wealth to the poor" please explain how to handle verses like Mark 10:31, and 1 John 3:17. For those arguing the case of "yes, wealthy Christians are required to give all their wealth to the poor", please explain how to handle the wealth of Job / Abraham, as well as why Zacchaeus, upon giving half his wealth to the poor and repaying 4 fold (did this bankrupt him?) earned the praise of Christ.