Can "The Virgin Mary" be called "daughter of Aaron"?

Luke 1:36 >And now, your relative Elizabeth in her old age has also conceived a son; and this is the sixth month for her who was said to be barren. (New Revised Standard Version) According to [Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible](https://biblehub.com/commentaries/gill/luke/1.htm) : >For though Elisabeth was of the daughters of Aaron, or of the tribe of Levi by her father's side, yet might be of the tribe of Judah by her mother's side, and so akin to Mary. If that is true, then could the Jews of the first century, have called Mary "the daughter of Aaron", even if she was only akin to Elisabeth by the tribe of Judah by her mother's side?