According to Trinitarians, why didn't Jesus correct the scribe's use of 'Him' at Mark 12:32-33?

Mark 12:28-34 contains a back-and-forth between Jesus and a scribe. > 28 Now one of the scribes had come up and heard their debate. Noticing > how well Jesus had answered them, he asked Him, “Which commandment is > the most important of all?” > > 29 Jesus replied, “This is the most important: ‘Hear O Israel, the Lord > our God, the Lord is One. 30 Love the Lord your God with all your heart > and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your > strength.’ 31 The second is this: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’ > No other commandment is greater than these.” > > 32 “Right, Teacher,” the scribe replied. “You have stated correctly > that God is One and there is no other but Him, 33 and to love Him with > all your heart and with all your understanding and with all your > strength, and to love your neighbor as yourself, which is more > important than all burnt offerings and sacrifices.” > > 34 When Jesus saw that the man had answered wisely, He said, “You are > not far from the kingdom of God.” > > And no one dared to question Him any further. When the scribe responds to Jesus, he recapitulates Jesus' answer by saying "God is one and there is no other but **Him**, and to love **Him**". According to Trinitarians, was the scribe correct in using a singular pronoun here to describe God? If not, why didn't Jesus use the opportunity to correct the scribe, but instead thought the scribe had answered wisely?