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Does the State have the right to correct the Church in theological matters?

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Did any Catholic theologians think the State ever has the right to correct the Church in theological matters? For example, when Pope John XXII (r. 1316-1334) denied the then-material (i.e., not-yet-infallibly-defined) dogma that the souls of the deceased destined to heaven behold the Beatific Vision immediately after death, he had >the gravest responsibilities before the tribunal of history [since] he offered the entire Church the humiliating spectacle of the **princes** [French King Philip the Fair, Emperor Louis IV the Bavarian, Philip VI of Valois], clergy [cardinals] and universities [Chancellor Jean Gerson of U. of Paris's theology college, the Sorbonne] **steering the Pontiff onto the right path of Catholic theological tradition**, and placed himself in the very difficult situation of having to contradict himself.
—Cdl. Alfredo Idelfonso Schuster, O.S.B., *Gesù Cristo nella Storia della Chiesa* (Benedictina Editrice, Rome 1996), 116–17, quoted in De Mattei, *Love for the Papacy and Filial Resistance to the Pope in the History of the Church* cf. "When did a 'formal act of correction' of a pope's statement happen in the past? "
Asked by Geremia (42439 rep)
Dec 7, 2021, 12:11 AM
Last activity: Dec 7, 2021, 10:43 PM