According to Chalcedonian theology, did Jesus retain his human nature after his ascension, or did he return to being only divine?

The Epistle of Diognetes, regarded by some to be the earliest example of Christian apologetics, establishes Jesus’ divine role as Creator and even goes as far as to call him God. > “As a king sends his son, who is also a king, so sent He Him; as God > He sent Him; as to men He sent Him;… (7.4) Jesus preferred to identify himself as the Son of Man, perhaps because it was a more well-known designation for the Messiah and because it helped people relate more to him as human. It also emphasized his role as a propitiatory sacrifice. > Daniel 7:13 "In my vision, there before me was one like a Son of Man, > coming with the clouds of heaven." > > John 3:14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even > so must the Son of man be lifted up; But Jesus also clearly affirmed his divinity. > John 10:36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very > own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy > because I said, `I am God’s Son’? Did Jesus' divine nature become a dual divine nature at incarnation and did he return to being fully God alone upon his ascension? Is there, for example, some reason, i.e.soteriologically, that he must retain his dual nature?