Why did God allow for the original Biblical manuscripts to be lost to history? And how to reconcile that with Matthew 24:35
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It's accepted by most Christians nowadays that only the original documents are inerrant, therefore the modern Bibles are bound to have contradictions because of copyist errors and translation errors. And we can see that in numerous verses with at least numerical discrepancies. So we can never compare them with the original.
So, I have two main questions:
- Why did God allow that? We do not have the original texts anymore, so we can never see this supposed inerrancy, and that can put heavy discredit on the Bibles we have today, one can wonder what else there is wrong without us being able to know, isn't that counter-productive to Christianity? He supposedly intervened on the writing and canonization, but didn't on the copies and translations, He could at least make someone lock up the original documents in secure vaults (even an angel), but chose not to, and as a result we ended up with only the fallible texts at the end, why? That goes against God's nature of being the most responsible being who is deeply concerned with having his message understood.
- How can this be reconciled with [Matthew 24:35](https://www.bibleref.com/Matthew/24/Matthew-24-35.html) ?
My reasoning goes like this, since we don't have the autographs, we don't have the inerrant words of Jesus written down to us, so they don't exist anymore, they "passed away" at least barely. Or, we can accept that in regard to Jesus' words, at the bare minimum, are written down to us without error (this requires a strong dose of faith, but that's what religion is supposed to look like either way).
God simply wanted His infallible words to be lost forever, and I want to know why.
Asked by Black Watch
(49 rep)
Sep 3, 2021, 04:48 AM
Last activity: Mar 28, 2024, 11:57 PM
Last activity: Mar 28, 2024, 11:57 PM