How do deniers of Jesus preincarnate existence handle all the personal pronouns in John 1, particularly verse10?

John 1:10 says: > He was in the world, and the world was made through him, yet the world did not know him. It is made clear in the context that the "he" who was in the world is the same "he" who was in the beginning with God (v.2), the same "he" through whom all things were made (v.3), the same "he" in which was the life lighting all men (v.4), the same "he" who came unto his own and was not received (v.11), and the same "he" through whom we may receive the right to be called children of God (v.12). Of the three "he" in verse 10 the first is 3rd person singular and the last two are 3rd person singular, masculine. How do those who deny that Jesus preexisted his incarnation as a personal being handle the inspired usage of all of these 3rd person personal pronouns in describing the one who made the world and was later made flesh and dwelt among us?