There are many who have pointed out that Luther added the word, "alone" to Romans 3:28 (you can read one such example in this question ) so that the Luther Bible reads:
> for we reckon a man to be justified by faith alone without deeds of law
where the Greek reads:
> for we reckon a man to be justified by faith without deeds of law
Is this true?
Asked by Ignatius Theophorus
(5237 rep)
Jun 28, 2012, 11:44 AM
Last activity: Nov 1, 2020, 04:55 AM
Last activity: Nov 1, 2020, 04:55 AM