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How does John Owen account for scriptures which state that justification by faith is not through the law?

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In my previous inquiry regarding the history of the doctrine which states that Jesus Christ, in the days of his flesh, kept the law on behalf of others as 'passive obedience' (which law-keeping is then regarded as 'transferrable' to others) I discovered that John Owen is the first to state this doctrine, as such, and it first appears in creed-form - as far as I have yet found - in the Savoy Declaration of 1658. I am now interested in what John Owen makes of scriptures which state that justification by faith is not accomplished by means of the works of the law. These scriptures appear to be categorical and are stating that, whether 'actively' or whether 'passively', justification by faith is simply not a matter - at all - of the works and deeds of the law. >... a man is **not justified by the works of the law** but by faith of Jesus Christ [Galatians 2:16 (a), KJV] >For by the works of the law **shall no flesh be justified** [Galatians 2:16 (b), KJV] >But that **no man is justified by the law** in the sight of God, it is evident [Galatians 3:11 (a) KJV] >... for, the just shall live **by faith** [Galatians 3:11 (b) KJV] >... by the deeds of the law there **shall no flesh be justified** in his sight [Romans 3:20 (a) KJV] >... for by the law is the knowledge of sin [Romans 3:20 (b) KJV] >Now, the righteousness of God, **without the law**, is manfested ... [Romans 3:21 (a) KJV] >... even the righteousnss of God **by faith** of Jesus Christ [Romans 3:21 (b) KJV] *These texts appear to preclude the possibility of any means of justification which involves law.* How does John Owen (or those who were his contemporaries) treat of these texts in the propagation of the concept of Jesus Christ keeping law, during the days of his flesh, in order that others may be justified ? ---------------------------------------- [NOTE : *The concept of Jesus Christ 'fulfilling' the law is another concept. The law is fulfilled by righteous means. But it is not 'fulfilled' by flesh submitting to it, in order to seek justification. There seems to be some confusion on this point. I think scripture is quite clear about this, as the above texts show.*]
Asked by Nigel J (28843 rep)
Aug 3, 2020, 06:52 PM
Last activity: Aug 4, 2020, 05:57 PM