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If a woman does not reach the climax at the time when the husband does, is it morally permissible for her to be stimulated until she achieves it?

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If a woman does not reach the climax in the marital act at the time when the husband achieves it (he achieves it before she does), is it morally permissible for her to be stimulated (by herself or her husband) until she achieves it? I am interested in the Catholic viewpoint.
Asked by Thom (2047 rep)
Apr 25, 2020, 04:26 PM
Last activity: May 5, 2025, 03:35 AM