Was the feast of unleavened bread celebrated for 8 days (opposed to 7) as it is outside Israel today in Jesus' time?

I am wondering if two Seder meals were eaten during Jesus' time the way it is today outside Israel. If so that might help explain why the gospel of John mentiones eating the passover the night he was crucified and yet other gospels say the last supper was when the evening of the day the lambs were sacrificed. This link answers the question regarding today but how was it during Jesus' time? TO EDIT: These are the references to the so-called contradiction. In the Synoptics, Jesus is eating Passover **before** He suffers. John portrays the Passover yet to come **after** He suffers. >Luke 22:15 And he said unto them, With desire I have desired to **eat this passover with you before** I suffer: > >John 18:28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they **might eat the passover.** This fairly well-known "contradiction" has been explained in a number of ways ranging from the idea John was written centuries later, for religious purposes, to a different type feast (Passover or other), and to the 7 or 8 day view of which this post is about. [Is Passover 7 or 8 Days?](https://reformjudaism.org/passover-7-or-8-days)