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Why is the Latin New Testament authoritative for the Catholic Church rather than the original Greek?

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Just wondering why they chose Latin instead of Greek to be the source of truth of the texts, and instead added this abstraction layer when they were so close to the Greek culture at the time?
Asked by Lance Pollard (355 rep)
Mar 24, 2020, 02:28 AM
Last activity: Mar 24, 2020, 03:20 PM