What is meant by "faith and morals" with regards to papal infallibility?

There are plenty of questions in this site about infallibility (e.g. [here](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/15547/which-roman-catholic-doctrines-are-infallible) , [here](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/2950/list-of-papal-teachings-considered-infallible) , and [here](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/34712/does-the-pope-teach-infallibly-only-when-he-speaks-ex-cathedra)) . All of them take for granted a certain definition of "faith and morals", which is the area upon which doctrines are to be potentially considered infallible. But, **what precisely is meant by faith and morals?** In other words, **which is the precise and demarcated scope of infallibility?** The [Catholic Encyclopedia](http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/07790a.htm#IV) on this same topic is far from clear. Faith and morals are words that can be colloquially stretched significantly, so it is essential to me that there is theological clarity on what exactly the Church means. Having a precise demarcation we can then analyse the full range of **potential** areas of infallibility. For example, regarding "moral" issues like paying taxes, polluting the environment, being in the army, gambling, etc; or "faith" issues like the number of wings of angels (if any), the day Moses died (for a potential "Feast of Moses"), whether the rich go to heaven or not, etc.