What rationale do KJV-1611-Only give for not recognizing the apocryphal books of that version?

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                          For the first 74 years of the KJV (including most notably the 1611 version) the KJV included the apocryphal books. So if the 1611 version is inspired why don't the Protestant KJV-1611-Only crowd consider them canonical? 
                        

Asked by Ruminator (2548 rep)

Aug 11, 2018, 10:40 AM
Last activity: Jul 3, 2025, 02:57 PM

What rationale do KJV-1611-Only give for not recognizing the apocryphal books of that version?

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