"Holy man / saints" in the point of view of God according to the Calvinist?
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I was in the middle of a discussion in a Christian Forum, where the Calvinist member say that : *"holy man / saint" can only exist only after Jesus died. Before Jesus died, all the OT people are neither holy nor saints, they are sinners - even soon after they died they are not holy/saints because they haven't been freed from their sins and their original sin by Christ's blood.*
> 2 Chronicles 23:6
But let none come into the house of the LORD, > save the priests, and they that minister of the Levites; they shall go > in, for **they are holy**: but all the people shall keep the watch of the > LORD. > > Psalm 34:9
O fear the LORD, ye **his saints**: for there is no want to > them that fear him. > > Deuteronomy 33:3
Yea, he loved the people; all **his saints** are in > thy hand: and they sat down at thy feet; every one shall receive of > thy words. > > Ezra 8:28
And I said unto them, **Ye are holy** unto the LORD; the > vessels are holy also; and the silver and the gold are a freewill > offering unto the LORD God of your fathers. It's the same question which I ask to the Calvinist member in that forum, but I don't get a satisfying answer from them as their reply starts to going around and around, jumping here and there. So... my question is:
From the verse above - how come they are being said as "holy" or "saints" if according to the Calvinist, OT people are not holy/saint yet because the blood of Christ hasn't cleanse them yet ?
But let none come into the house of the LORD, > save the priests, and they that minister of the Levites; they shall go > in, for **they are holy**: but all the people shall keep the watch of the > LORD. > > Psalm 34:9
O fear the LORD, ye **his saints**: for there is no want to > them that fear him. > > Deuteronomy 33:3
Yea, he loved the people; all **his saints** are in > thy hand: and they sat down at thy feet; every one shall receive of > thy words. > > Ezra 8:28
And I said unto them, **Ye are holy** unto the LORD; the > vessels are holy also; and the silver and the gold are a freewill > offering unto the LORD God of your fathers. It's the same question which I ask to the Calvinist member in that forum, but I don't get a satisfying answer from them as their reply starts to going around and around, jumping here and there. So... my question is:
From the verse above - how come they are being said as "holy" or "saints" if according to the Calvinist, OT people are not holy/saint yet because the blood of Christ hasn't cleanse them yet ?
Asked by karma
(2436 rep)
Feb 9, 2018, 05:54 PM
Last activity: Feb 11, 2018, 08:39 PM
Last activity: Feb 11, 2018, 08:39 PM