What is the basis for saying that the Gospel of Thomas was accepted as scripture by early Christians?

In [an answer here](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/43405/21576) , Dick Harfield writes: > we know that [the Gospel of Thomas] and (probably) Q were treated as scripture by early Christians. Reading the Wikipedia article on the [Gospel of Thomas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_Thomas) , I see that there is scholarly disagreement over the dating of the Gospel of Thomas – some say before AD 100, while others say after. But by the mid- to late-2nd century, the four gospels we recognize today were affirmed by Irenaeus and others, to the exclusion of the Gospel of Thomas. Actual evidence from the first century seems sparse, and so my question: Among those arguing for an early date for the Gospel of Thomas, what is the evidence that points to early Christians (i.e., 1st century or early 2nd century) considering it to be "scripture"?