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How do various traditions define the term "sufficient grace"?

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I have read various polemics on the topics of Augustinianism, Calvinism, Jansenism, Pelagianism, Arminianism, and Catholicism which seem to use the term "sufficient grace" in different ways. For instance, this blog post by a Catholic claims that James White misuses the term "sufficiency of grace," and that White is ignorant of the history of Jansenism's denial of the Catholic doctrine of sufficient grace. However, it seems just as likely that White is simply using the term in a different way. What is an overview of how the term "sufficient grace" has been used by various perspectives in these debates?
Asked by Mr. Bultitude (15647 rep)
Sep 27, 2016, 05:24 PM