Did the early church fathers view "monogenes" as "only" or "only-begotten"?
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Did the early church fathers view "monogenes" as "only" or "only-begotten"?
The following Bible verses have "monogenes" in it:
Verse KJV NET
John 1:14 only begotten the one and only
John 1:18 only begotten only one
John 3:16 only begotten one and only
John 3:18 only begotten one and only
1 John 4:9 only begotten one and only
Luke 7:12 only only
Luke 8:42 only one only
Luke 9:38 only child only child
Hebrews 11:17 only begotten only son
With only one exception, the King James Version translates it to specify that the only is a child. However, modern translations, such as the New English Translation, use "one and only" most of the time. How was this word understood by the Church Fathers?
Asked by Matthew Lee
(6609 rep)
Jul 26, 2014, 09:48 AM
Last activity: Dec 31, 2024, 07:52 PM
Last activity: Dec 31, 2024, 07:52 PM