If God desires salvation for all, how come many people died without hearing the gospel?

1 Timothy 2:4 states that God wants everyone to be saved: > This is good, and pleases God our Savior, who wants all people to be saved and > to come to a knowledge of the truth. For there is one God and one mediator > between God and mankind, the man Christ Jesus, who gave himself as a ransom for > all people. And for this purpose I was appointed a herald and an apostle—I am telling the truth, I am not lying—and a true and faithful teacher of the Gentiles. Furthermore Timothy possibly implies that Jesus also saves those who don't believe: > That is why we labor and strive, because we have put our hope in the > living God, who is the Savior of all people, and especially of those > who believe. In Ezekiel 18:23 we read: > Do I take any pleasure in the death of the wicked? declares the > Sovereign LORD. Rather, am I not pleased when they turn from their > ways and live? Ezekiel 18:32 > For I take no pleasure in the death of anyone, declares the Sovereign > LORD. Repent and live! Ezekiel 33:11 > Say to them, 'As surely as I live, declares the Sovereign LORD, I take > no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from > their ways and live. Turn! Turn from your evil ways! Why will you die, > people of Israel?' Here is my question: it is obvious that lots of people in the world have never heard the gospel. This includes pretty much everyone living in East Asia, Australia and the Americas in the year 50 AD. These people had NO CHANCE to hear the gospel. Yet the above verses all show that God desires all to be saved. Doesn't that logically imply that people can be saved without coming to believe in the Gospel? After all, you can't have all three statements being true: 1. God desires all people to be saved 2. The only way to get saved is hearing the gospel and accepting Jesus 3. Many people never heard the gospel. One of these must not be correct and I think it's #2.