In what way was the Law of Moses "a good thing whose purpose had now been accomplished"?
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I came across this quote from NT Wright:
> The Torah [the Law of Moses] is given for a specific period of time,
> and is then set aside—not because it was a bad thing now happily
> abolished, but because it was a good thing whose purpose had now been
> accomplished.
I'd like to see this fleshed out in more detail. In what way is this true, according to Wright or others that hold this view?
Asked by Joebevo
(1035 rep)
Dec 21, 2013, 07:18 AM
Last activity: Jan 16, 2016, 03:46 PM
Last activity: Jan 16, 2016, 03:46 PM