When was the Bible formally declared to be inerrant and/or infallible?

Fundamentally*, an inerrant Bible is one without errors and an infallible Bible is one that cannot have errors, as David Stratton pointed out in his answer . As for the Roman Catholic Church, all of its doctrines are infallible , so presumably, they believe the Bible is infallible as well. My question is: ***when* and *why* was inerrancy/infallibility formally declared?** I'm looking for any combination of these four sources: 1. an Old Testament text declares itself or another OT text to be inerrant/infallible, 2. a New Testament text declares itself or another NT text to be inerrant/infallible, 3. one or more early church authors declare some OT/NT text to be inerrant/infallible, or 4. the closed canon (with or without the Deuterocanon) is declared inerrant/infallible by the Church, before or after the Great Schism. I'm most interested in writings from the early church fathers, and 2 Timothy 3:16 is allowed in the answer only if the link between "God-breathed" and "infallible"/"inerrant" is shown in a clear and direct way. Also, declarations of inerrancy/infallibility should apply to the whole text, not just God's directly-spoken words. --- *[Stealthy](http://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/StealthPun) or [lame](http://tvtropes.org/pmwiki/pmwiki.php/Main/LamePunReaction) , take your pick.